At the end of the play, social order should be restored. One facet of this in the 16th century is men having dominance over women. Is this true in this play? Who has the upper-hand, and why? Provide textual evidence.
Shakespeare plays usually take place in two different places the normal world and the magical world. The normal world is ruled by men and women are subject to their husbands. Whereas in the magical world women are usually in charge. In the play The Merchant of Venice the normal world is in Venice. In Venice, the men ruled and controlled what happened in the story. Once the story shifted to Belmont, Portia and Nerissa started playing a more important role in the plot. When the trial took place in Belmont if it was not for Portia’s and Nerissa’s quick thinking Antonio would have died at the hands of Shylock. Even after Antonio’s trial the women still hold the power in the play. You can see this by the way they trick their husbands once back at the palace in Belmont (Act 5.1). The reason the power stays with the women at the end of the play is because they are still in the magical world where the women rule.
It is true that Portia and Nerissa seem to have the upper hand at the end and it is interesting that the play ends in the Green World, so that order isn't quite restored. One thing - the court scene happened in Venice.
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